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Bunting and Hit and Run

Posted: Sun Aug 03, 2008 1:30 pm
by Cardinals
I cannot for the life of me figure out some of these managers. I'm watching the Yankees Angels game right now. 1st and 2nd, 0 out in the first inning for the Angels, and they call a hit and run with Teixiera up at the plate. Why? It was a 2-1 count and you force Teixiera to swing at a pitch and just make weak contact on a hitters count. Obviously he's one of the best bats in the league, I'm not sure why you as a manager go up there dictating what pitches and what types of swing he takes.

Not to be outdone by Scoscia, Damon reaches on an infield single off Lackey so the Yanks have a chance to get a rally going. What does Girardi have Jeter do? Bunt. Why? it's the first inning, the score is 2-0. It's not a ridiculous margin, and it's the bottom of the first. Jeter is your #2 hitter. Do you really not trust the guy to get a hit here? Abreu and A-Rod proceed to go down on strikes. Not that I'm complaining as a Lackey owner.

The other day as well, I believe I was watching the Cubs/Brewers game and Pinella had whoever was hitting second for him bunt in the first inning. I'm not vehemently opposed to the bunt, I think it serves its purpose in the NL pretty well, but unless it's the pitcher, why the F are you bunting in the first inning? Especially at the top of the order. Your #2 hitter "should" be one of the 3-4 best hitters on your team, so I just can't really figure out why these tards have them bunting.